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Posted by: Henry Bemis ( )
Date: March 11, 2013 02:12PM

Here are some responses to comments by Human in “The Nature of Mathematics” thread.

[HUMAN] “2+2=4 is true, whether it is described in a Hindu-Arabic script or a Roman script (ii+ii=iv) or something else. Language is a vehicle that carries something, a vessel for "content". Erase the language (vehicle) from mankind and I think we would be hard-pressed to claim that suddenly 2+2 didn't still = 4: specifically, what "2" stands for, what "+" stands for, what "=" stands for, and what "4" stands for. If this is true, then where exactly does this truth exist?”

“archytas's example above to MJ is exactly right. Pi is not arbitrary, it exists apart from the numerals that "carry" it. Math is a series of discoveries, not inventions.”

[RESPONSE] What is being confused here is the distinction between mathematics as a language and mathematics as a description of the world. And, with “language” we include the mental states that they are associated with. With some universals, like “love,” language as the spoken written word must be separated from its accompanying denoted mental state. Let’s discuss this.

Of course, the language of mathematics was invented by humans. However, the fact that the physical world is “mathematical,” i.e. that it can be described by complex mathematical relationships is, of course, a feature of the world (universe) that is independent of language. Thus, the underlying mathematical structure of reality remains to be explained, even if we can explain “mathematics” proper as a human language game.

[HUMAN] “But I have to ask . . . if we are willing to give ontological status to mathematical objects why not also to other conceptual objects? If our minds *discovered* Pi rather than invented it, why cannot we also say that our hearts *discovered* Love rather than invented it? Same with Justice, same with Mercy same with etc.............(the implication for recovery from Mormonism is clear here, this leads to, yes, God.)”

[RESPONSE] Universals are not all created equal with respect to their relationship to the external world, as determined by “evidence.” With each one it must be asked what does the term in the language denote? Clearly some such terms, e.g. “game” are nothing more that human constructs invented for convenience of discourse. There is no ideal, Platonic “game” existing somewhere that our human term relates to in some way. But what about “mathematics,” and “love.” What do they denote?

Now, if we take the term “mathematics,” we are in a bit of a dilemma. Although this term certainly carries with it a purely human language aspect, including human derived axioms, rules, theorems, etc., we also find that the world behaves in accordance with those very mathematical principles that we have described in our language. Moreover, sometimes we discover the “rules” by studying the structure of the physical world. Moreover, geometrical figures, like the circle, can be mathematically idealized through concepts like “pi,” the properties of which seem to transcend simple human construct. After all, human beings did not invent the truth that the circumference of a circle is related to the number pi and its radius; they discovered this.

Does this mean we have not invented mathematics after all? It certainly means that there is something special about the structure and order of reality that we did not invent. As such, the temptation, right or wrong, is great to conclude that “mathematics” denotes something over and above our language conventions. Again, the mathematical structure of the world does not disappear with the disappearance of human language or the human mind, even though our mathematical terms do. On the other hand, a proposed Platonic universal “games” does seem to disappear.

Considering “love,” it too is, of course, is a word of convenience in human language invented to denote a certain emotion; a mental state. (not a brain state!) If there were no humans (or more broadly minds) the notion of “love” would seem to disappear. So, if we want to claim that “love” carries ontological status, there are two options: First, we might claim that love carries its ontological status as a mental “entity,” that arises from brain states. Or, second, we might make the more radical claim that love is something ontologically separate from mind; i.e. that the mind taps into. But, if that is the claim, what could it possibly be? Here we seem to have crossed over into pure mysticism. We know that consciousness exists. We know that mental states exist. And we know that love exists as a mental state. But that does not justify a view that “love” is a Platonic universal.

As a dualist, who believes that consciousness is ontologically separate from the brain that instantiates it, I am sympathetic to the first suggestion. Perhaps love is an aspect or property of mind that somehow has ontological status separate from both brains and consciousness. But here again, when we try to unpack this notion we get into immediate trouble. We have enough difficulty with consciousness itself, do we want to add love and the other emotions as well. Why can’t the ontological status of love simply be as aspect or property of mind?

[HUMAN “I acknowledge that I am placing something into that "gaping hole in our understanding of reality" that is "a metaphysical conclusion unsupported by any evidence." But as you've said many times before, a materialist assumption which precludes the possibility of a metaphysical reality is no less an assumption.”

[RESPONSE] Well, you need to be careful here. Possibility is one thing; evidence is another. There is abundant evidence, in my view, that materialism, as a scientific worldview, is false. That I have said many times. But that does not leave us free to invent all sorts of metaphysical objects, or deem conventions of language as denoting the reality of our pet universals. Where to draw the line is, of course, difficult. But mathematics is on the credible side of this ledger, whereas love is on the more speculative, mystical side, in my view, simply because, as stated, mathematics is closely tied to the physical world, whereas love (the emotion) is dependent upon mind, which is itself ontologically elusive. This, of course, does not mean that love does not exist as a human emotion. It simply means that it probably does not exist outside of, and independent of, such emotions, and the minds that experience them.

[HUMAN] “But I still can't help *feeling* that poetry is a vehicle which carries a content that exists apart from the words that convey it. *Convey* here is an interesting, pregnant word.”

[COMMENT] Yes, but what is this “content” that is being carried or conveyed? I would say that whatever it is, it resides in consciousness, and “the self” of those who experience it, whatever that turns out to be. Call it the soul, if you will. It is, for me, an experience that strikes to the heart of who we are as conscious beings. But we do not have to insist that this content is part of the world separate from the human beings who experience it. Surely, consciousness, love, the self, etc. are not just words; they denote “something.” But the ontological status of what they denote is tied, it seems to me, to our own ontological status as mental (an autonomous) beings, of which we do have abundant evidence.

Finally, based upon some of the responses to the original post, some simplistically ignore the fact that the universe is remarkably ordered in accordance with mathematical principles. True, humans may have invented mathematics proper even if the world was not so ordered; and the world would be so ordered even if there were no humans to invent mathematics proper. But it is a huge error to conclude that there is nothing metaphysically significant by the fact that the world is fantastically ordered in mathematical ways, notwithstanding human beings. And the question remains; Why? This question relates to the cosmological anthropic principle; i.e. why does the universe appear to be fine-tuned for life. The even more fundamental question here is, Why is the universe in fact ordered in conformance with mathematical laws.

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Posted by: Uncle Dale ( )
Date: March 11, 2013 02:28PM

Excellent.

This is precisely what I was looking to see discussed.

UD

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Posted by: frogdogs ( )
Date: March 11, 2013 02:34PM

I've enjoyed reading these detailed discussions, while in no way feeling qualified to make comments.

HB, your final paragraph reminded me of some things I'd read recently in "God's Undertaker" by John Lennox (mathematical orderliness of universe, limitations of materialism, etc). I've never seen this particular book mentioned on RfM and am curious if anybody else has read it, and if so what their opinion of it was?

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Posted by: MJ ( )
Date: March 11, 2013 03:06PM

"Finally, based upon some of the responses to the original post, some simplistically ignore the fact that the universe is remarkably ordered in accordance with mathematical principles."

Nonsense, the Universe is not organized in accordance with mathematical principles, mathematical "principals" were created to describe the existing universe. To prove your point you need to show how the Universe used pi in ordering itself. Yes, pi exists as a mathematical principle to describe the universe, but was it actually used in ordering the universe? Was the universe organized "in accordance" with the mathematical principle of pi? If so, how did the universe use pi to ordered itself?



Edited 2 time(s). Last edit at 03/11/2013 03:11PM by MJ.

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Posted by: Happy_Heretic ( )
Date: March 11, 2013 04:05PM

+1

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Posted by: Uncle Dale ( )
Date: March 11, 2013 03:51PM

"Finally, based upon some of the responses to the original post, some simplistically ignore the fact that the universe is remarkably ordered in accordance with mathematical principles."

Would that be essentially the same our saying:

"The order of the universe remarkably accords with
mathematical principles." ???

The word "ordered" could convey the impression of the
universe being organized by something like intelligent design.

I doubt that was the intent of the quoted statement. Correct?

UD

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Posted by: MJ ( )
Date: March 11, 2013 04:01PM

To me, this whole "ordered by" argument is a bit like looking at an incredibly accurate picture of a mountain then saying the mountain was ordered by the principals of the picture.

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Posted by: Uncle Dale ( )
Date: March 11, 2013 04:31PM

MJ Wrote:
-------------------------------------------------------
> To me, this whole "ordered by" argument is a bit
> like looking at an incredibly accurate picture of
> a mountain then saying the mountain was ordered by
> the principals of the picture.


I tend to agree. Mr. Bemis should be strongly criticized
in each case where he said "ordered by" in his posting.

UD

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Posted by: Henry Bemis ( )
Date: March 11, 2013 04:59PM

You are all grasping at straws. "Ordered" implies only organization, i.e. "order." It does not imply a "designer."

Scientists will all tell you that nature is "ordered," which only means that it operates in accordance with underlying laws. Evolution, for example, tells us that nature itself has ordering capabilities. For example, the genetic code is highly ordered, which is accomplished by natural processes. Human beings are highly ordered, but that does not mean or suggest intelligent design, or a creator.

And speaking of the genetic code, it existed long before human beings put it in human language. Are we to assume that such is all human invention? The structure of the "genetic code," and its function, existed long before humans discovered it. The same is arguably true for mathematics.

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Posted by: Uncle Dale ( )
Date: March 11, 2013 05:22PM

MJ Wrote:
-------------------------------------------------------
> n/t

Looking back over Mr. Bemis' original posting, I
now see that I must recent my previous accusation.
He never once used the words "ordered by," much
less, ordered by something specific.

I was wrong.
He was right.
You?
(No need for me to bring you into my statement.)

UD

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Posted by: MJ ( )
Date: March 11, 2013 05:27PM

"ordered in accordance with mathematical principles" Sure sounds a lot like "ordered by" to me.

"ordered by mathematical principles"
"ordered in accordance with mathematical principles"

Sounds like the same point to me.

So, I apologize for using the terms "ordered by". So, please re-read my posts substitution "ordered in accordance with" with "ordered by". I will stand by what I said with the substitution made.



Edited 1 time(s). Last edit at 03/11/2013 05:30PM by MJ.

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Posted by: Henry Bemis ( )
Date: March 11, 2013 05:11PM

Oh, and by the way, the whole purpose of science is to discover order in the universe. Without order, scientists would have absolutely nothing to do! So, I guess they are all closet creationists, or perhaps orderists!

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Posted by: jacob ( )
Date: March 11, 2013 05:08PM

What is it that we fear, the chaos, or the inability to order the chaos?

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Posted by: Erick ( )
Date: March 11, 2013 05:52PM

I've alway's struggled to understand what's so complex about "order", and why this denotes God somehow. First, the mere fact that all regression stops at God demonstrates how empty this is. Did God once live in a chaotic and unstable enviroment that violated laws of logic and physics, which he then "ordered"? Where did he even come up with notions of "order", in such an enviroment? Or did he come from some other place that was "ordered", from which he applied the ideas of order to our Universe? If so, where did the prior Universe get it's order. While these questions are interesting, ie, why should there be order as opposed to disorder, the injection of God literally does nothing to satisfy the question.

The more philosophical questions about, why is there something instead of nothing, have never compelled me. It's a valid question, but the inverse is also true...and it also beg's the question of why we believe there should be purpose behind cause. We live in a galaxy apparently devoid of human knowledge, that is a microcosm of interesting, yet meaningless interactions. Yes, human beings have purpose in our creative efforts, but what about all of the interactions on Mars?? what "purpose" does it serve? What big thrill does God get out of making sure that happens? All of this beg's the question, what is God's ultimate purpose. Even the fine tuning arguments are strange. After all, are we to believe that God must have a large solar system of mostly empty space and dead planets in order to give humans a testing ground on one planet only? In other words, does God's creations depend on this "order"? If so, is the creator of it, or just a subject to it? If God is constrained by order, then the whole notion that fine tuning demonstrates God, sort of falls out the window.

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Posted by: MJ ( )
Date: March 11, 2013 05:54PM

Some of us are talking about the claim "order in accordance with mathematical principals" and raising a cause and affect objection. Was the mathematical principals the cause of the organization, or were the mathematical principles derived from observing the organization.



Edited 1 time(s). Last edit at 03/11/2013 05:58PM by MJ.

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Posted by: Uncle Dale ( )
Date: March 11, 2013 07:23PM

MJ Wrote:
-------------------------------------------------------
> Some of us are talking about the claim "order in
> accordance with mathematical principals" and
> raising a cause and affect objection. Was the
> mathematical principals the cause of the
> organization, or were the mathematical principles
> derived from observing the organization.

Or... are those mathematical principles inherent in the
only possible cosmic structure? Is the order so
intimately wrapped up with existence, that it MUST BE.
AND IS -- ready for discovery by sentient brings, should
they ever evolve and attempt to fathom the order.
???

UD

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Posted by: MJ ( )
Date: March 11, 2013 09:47PM

No matter, the organization was done by forces, not by principals that describe forces.

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Posted by: Erick ( )
Date: March 11, 2013 10:02PM

So it's the old philosophical question of "if a variable appears on a challk board does it produce an output if there are no mathmaticians to solve it?"

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Posted by: MJ ( )
Date: March 11, 2013 10:04PM


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Posted by: Human ( )
Date: March 11, 2013 06:42PM

Thank you, Henry. There's a lot here and so I'll look closer this evening and write something tomorrow. But off the top of my head (and I'm probably misunderstanding something)"

Henry Bemis wrote:
---------------------------

Universals are not all created equal with respect to their relationship to the external world, as determined by “evidence.” With each one it must be asked what does the term in the language denote? Clearly some such terms, e.g. “game” are nothing more that human constructs invented for convenience of discourse. There is no ideal, Platonic “game” existing somewhere that our human term relates to in some way. But what about “mathematics,” and “love.” What do they denote?




You seem to be changing the definition of Universals in order to diminish them. For one, Universals are not simply the denotation of this or that particular word, but are instead the essence or resemblance or commonality of "that which are denoted." As you know:

Universals, if they exist, are not created; nor are they, by their very nature, subject to evidence, since they are, by definition, eternal and beyond the sensible world, which is changeable (your "external world").

All sensation is particular. All objects known through the senses are particular. Everything in the sensible world is particular. Therefore evidence is particular. Universals, however, are not particular and are not because they cannot be subject to particular "evidence".

But Universals are not merely mental. They seem to exist apart from space and time, the mental and material……like, mathematical *objects*. For example (via Russell):

1. If truth exists and is apprehensible, our apprehending the truth isn't also the cause of the truth.

2. For example, "Calgary is north of Utah" is true independent of the language that denotes the idea for north, and is also independent of the minds that apprehend this truth.


I wouldn't be so quick to give Universal status to "Love" and "Mathematical Objects" but exclude something like "Game", for certainly there is an essence of which all things our term "game" denotes shares in. B. Russell is consistent: if Universals exist, then even verbs, adjectives and prepositions denote universals.

We can refute Plato and the platonic strain that carries on in his wake, but it's a strawman to change the meaning of Universals to do so.


(Some Artists are fond of say that they did not create anything but simply found something that was already there...)

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Posted by: Human ( )
Date: March 11, 2013 07:09PM

I saw this on the way out the door and responded quickly and wish I hadn't.

Allow me to look at this tonight and respond better tomorrow.

Human

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Posted by: Henry Bemis ( )
Date: March 11, 2013 08:36PM

O.K. But let me just point out a couple of things that might aid your thinking.

(1) Universals are the referents of general terms; i.e. what general terms are supposed to refer to. Consider the following universals; red, chair, flower, game, and mathematics. If we are taking a realist position (Platonism), do each of these approach the ontological question regarding their separate existence on equal footing?

(2) Does our experience of particulars, or science, provide any "evidence" [or perhaps better, "reason"] to prefer one particular interpretation (realist or nominalist) of a given universal?

(3) What does a commitment to natural laws dictate, or suggest, if anything, about our stance toward universals?

(4) What does a commitment to mind dictate, if anything, regarding our stance toward universals?

Now, one final suggestion. Do not get bogged down in a maze of philosophical positions and definitions, and just reason upon the issues suggested in the post.

I suspect you may have some valid criticisms, but you need to make them clear.

HB

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Posted by: archytas ( )
Date: March 11, 2013 08:17PM

Hi Henry. This is a fascinating topic.

In contrasting mathematical entities with more abstract entities, you said:
"But that does not leave us free to invent all sorts of metaphysical objects, or deem conventions of language as denoting the reality of our pet universals. Where to draw the line is, of course, difficult. But mathematics is on the credible side of this ledger, whereas love is on the more speculative, mystical side, in my view, simply because, as stated, mathematics is closely tied to the physical world, whereas love (the emotion) is dependent upon mind, which is itself ontologically elusive."

I think one big difference is that we can "investigate" the properties of circles or integers using mathematical methods. However, there does not seem to be a similar way of investigating the entities in Plato's zoo. How would we learn the properties of Tableness? It seems "ontologically elusive" as you put it.

Although I'm interested in the ontology of mathematical entities, my inner-nominalist remains skeptical of things like the Tableness or Gameness.



Edited 4 time(s). Last edit at 03/11/2013 08:21PM by archytas.

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Posted by: Other Than ( )
Date: March 11, 2013 08:56PM

Don't know if someone has said this before, but as far as Pi there aren't any perfect circles in the natural world. A circle can be described by mathmatics, but it never exists in the real world.

Just as the abstract concept of 1 of something is always an abstraction. One planet? What is a planet? How many molecules is a planet? It's not really "1", it's an abstraction.

Is the atmosphere part of the planet? Is anything within the atmosphere part of the planet or just those things physically connected with similar atomic structures? What about stars? The Earth actually is in the upper atmosphere of the Sun, does that make the Earth part of the Sun?

Because mathmatics are always abstractions, they are not real. They don't even exist in nature. We shortcut with language and ignore the differnces in our labeling in order for the abstraction of mathmatics to work. Just like with circles, we never really have one as defined by pi, but we approximate because it is useful and the applications we use don't require infinite precision.

So no, I don't think numbers are real at all. It's invented by the human mind. Do numbers follow rules? Yes, but those rules aren't based in nature. Quite the opposite. We try to force nature into our mathmatical abstractions and gloss over the inconsistencies.

The Universe seems ordered, but our descriptions mathmatically will always fail at some level due to the necessary abstraction and impercision. We simply say "close enough", but that's not the same as saying mathmatics exist outside a brain.

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Posted by: archytas ( )
Date: March 11, 2013 09:32PM

"Reality is that which, when you stop believing in it, doesn't go
away."
-- Philip K. Dick

I don't think "not believing" in math will change the properties of a circle.

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Posted by: MJ ( )
Date: March 11, 2013 09:52PM


Edited 1 time(s). Last edit at 03/11/2013 09:53PM by MJ.

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Posted by: archytas ( )
Date: March 11, 2013 11:04PM

I love discussing this stuff, but you went troll on me yesterday. So, no thanks. I'm not biting.



Edited 1 time(s). Last edit at 03/11/2013 11:05PM by archytas.

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Posted by: MJ ( )
Date: March 11, 2013 11:09PM

Sore loser. Spewing logical fallacy after logical fallacy and never seeing your errors is hardly a discussion. It does fit the definition I agreed with though. Get it? If you BEHAVIOR fits the "Dunning-Kuger Effect" your BEHAVIOR is "Dunning-Kuger Effect" by definition. Also, NOBODY specifically labeled YOU as part of the "Dunning-Kuger Effect" until YOU accused them of ad hominem attacks. It was your acceptance of guilt (since YOU WERE NOT ACCUSED) that made be agree with the description,.

I accused YOU of nothing, just commented that someone had struck a nerve and you accused me of ad hominem. Show me where I made a statement about you specifically BEFORE you FALSELY accused me of ad hominem attacks.

Sorry, when you actually CAN have a discussion using VALID LOGIC (kinda required for a discussion) come back and we can talk.

Great name calling, real adult. Thanks Mr. Pot.



Edited 4 time(s). Last edit at 03/11/2013 11:24PM by MJ.

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Posted by: MJ ( )
Date: March 11, 2013 11:35PM

You took an OBSERVATION about what someone though should be discussed in the thread as a personal attack on you even though there was no comment directed at you personally and no accusation that anything had actually happened, only that it should be discussed.

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Posted by: MJ ( )
Date: March 11, 2013 09:51PM

A perfect circle, if it exist, and in a truly infinite universe it could, Would have been constructed because the forces of nature formed it to be a perfect circle. It would not have been formed in accordance with mathematical principles of pi, radius and circumference.

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