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Posted by: brandelion ( )
Date: February 03, 2014 11:40AM

Something I've never been able to understand - if JS was a divine prophet and inspired, why are only parts of his version of the King James Bible (those that are in the Pearl of Great Price) considered canon for the LDS?

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Posted by: Chump ( )
Date: February 03, 2014 11:55AM

Probably because he made "inspired" corrections like this one:

KJV Luke 10:22, reads: “No man knoweth who the Son is, but the Father; and who the Father is, but the Son, and he to whom the Son will reveal him.”

JST Luke 10:23 reads, “No man knoweth that the Son IS the Father, and the Father IS the Son, but him to whom the Son will reveal it”

The JST verse makes sense when you understand Joe's early ideas on the godhead, but it adds evidence that he was not inspired and that his 1st vision story was a late addition.

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Posted by: mythb4meat ( )
Date: February 03, 2014 12:09PM

And the answer is:

1) The copyright is owned by the Reorganized Church (Community of Christ, Independence, MO)

2) Many of JS's changes to the bible are quite embarrassing. For example, in Genesis Ch 50, Smith adds his own name to the bible, as well as his anti-black, racial doctrines. Genesis ch 50 is a real doozy!

They used to sell the book (called the "Holy Scriptures) in the BYU bookstore...that is where I bought mine.

Retired BYU faculty member Robert J. Matthews was perhaps the leading expert in comparing this work to the KJV, and marking all the changes.

The current official LDS Bible contains footnotes from the JS translation, but only specific passages which the Correlation Committee deemed advisable.

Most LDS faithful, when asked about it, say that "oh, Joseph never finished the work before his death". But this is a lie, in fact 2 verses in the D&C state that he indeed finished the translation, and laid it up sealed before God.

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Posted by: Chicken N. Backpacks ( )
Date: February 03, 2014 12:13PM

From lds*dot*org: "We should be appreciative of the great spiritual heritage and source of inspiration that has come to us through the Bible, yet readers the world over have recognized for many years that the Bible has not come to us in its original purity and plainness. (See 1 Ne. 13:21–28, 32; Moses 1:40"


So, uh, why did God let JS get killed before he finished fixing the most important book in the history of man? Oh, that's right, there has been a string or Prophets, Seers, and Revelators to finish the job....uhhh...errr....hello? hello? is this thing on?

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Posted by: mythb4meat ( )
Date: February 03, 2014 12:24PM

...See D & C 73:4 and 124:89

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Posted by: moremany ( )
Date: February 03, 2014 02:02PM

Yea, if the Bible is the word of God "as far as it is translated correctly", why didn't he translate it correctly and then it could be equal to the BOM and be much less confusing to aligators.

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Posted by: quinlansolo ( )
Date: February 03, 2014 02:02PM


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Posted by: fredoi ( )
Date: February 03, 2014 05:59PM

Smoking gun really, elephant, emperor. Etc

Why? Because we all knew / know it's not really inspired.

Basically

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