and since you view Pratt in The Seer to be an acceptable source...

Posted by Trixie on July 08, 1998 at 10:35:36:

In Reply to: Update Joseph Smith - Boy Genius I expected a Challenge posted by SWN on July 08, 1998 at 02:43:37:

You left out one quote by Orson Pratt in The Seer, page 158.

"The fleshly body of Jesus required a Mother as well as a Father. Therefore, the Father and Mother of Jesus, according to the flesh, must have been associated together in the capacity of Husband and Wife; hence the Virgin Mary must have been, for the time being, the lawful wife of God the Father: we use the term lawful Wife because it would be blasphemous to the highest degree to say that He overshadowed her or begat the Saviour unlawfully. It would have been unlawful for any man to have interfered with Mary, who was already espoused to Joseph; for such a heinous crime would have subjected both the guilty parties to death, according to the law of Moses. But God having created all men and women, had the most perfect right to do with His own creation according to His holy will and pleasure: he had a lawful right to overshadow the Virgin Mary in the capacity of a husband, and beget a Son, although she was espoused to another; for the law which He gave to govern men and women was not intended to govern Himself, or to prescribe rules for Himself, or to prescribe rules for His own conduct. It waas also lawful in Him, after having thus dealt with Mary, to give her to Joseph her espoused husband. Whether God the Father gave Mary to Joseph for time and eternity, we are not informed. Inasmuch as God ws the first husband to her, it may be that He only gave her to be the wife of Joseph while in this mortal state, and that He intended after the resurrection to again taker her as one of his own wives to raise up immortal spirits in eternity."

Given the fact that no one is going to say "God had sexual intercourse with Mary" due to puritanical impulses to allude to sex rather than describe sex, this is as close as anyone of the time period could GET to saying "God had sexual intercourse with Mary."
"interfered" with = have sex with (the only thing that would require the death penalty)
"overshadow the Virgin Mary in the capacity of a husband, and beget a Son" = enjoy the rights of a husband, ie, have sex with wife

Joseph Fielding Smith clarified some more in Religious Truths Defined, p. 44. "The birth of the Saviour was a NATURAL occurence unattended with any degree of mysticism, and the Father God was the LITERAL PARENT of Jesus in the FLESH as well as in the spirit."

McConkie, in the 1966 edition of Mormon Doctrine: "Christ was begotten by an Immortal Father in the same way the mortal men are begotten by mortal fathers." I assume that you have had enough experience, or sex ed, to know how mortal men beget their sons.